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guillaumeb

(42,649 posts)
10. First, prior to DC v Heller, the established and accepted view was that the Second
Tue May 3, 2016, 07:29 PM
May 2016

Amendment referred to a group right, not an individual right. There were few Federal challenges to this view that actually agreed with the plain language of the Amendment.

Second:

Why is Heller such a radical departure from prior Second Amendment case law?
As discussed in the Law Center’s brochure Gun Regulation and the Second Amendment: Moving Forward After District of Columbia v. Heller, the ruling in Heller represented a dramatic reversal of the Court’s previous interpretation of the Second Amendment. In United States v. Miller, the Court stated, in a unanimous decision, that the “obvious purpose” of the Second Amendment was to “assure the continuation and render possible the effectiveness of” the state militia, and the Amendment “must be interpreted and applied with that end in view.” In reliance on Miller, hundreds of lower federal and state appellate courts had rejected Second Amendment challenges to our nation’s gun laws over the last seven decades, making Heller‘s reversal of this interpretation a watershed moment in Second Amendment law.


http://smartgunlaws.org/understanding-district-of-columbia-v-heller/

I realize that this does not accord with your NRA type view, but history is NOT on your side in this issue. Scalia, the supposed originalist, decided that he, and he alone, knew what the true meaning of the language was. To arrive at this supposed true meaning, he discarded most of the language in the Amendment.

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What was "carefully considered" by the politicians passing the bill guillaumeb May 2016 #1
That was a major victory sarisataka May 2016 #2
A major victory for fear and for the money purchasing SCOTUS Judges. guillaumeb May 2016 #3
. sarisataka May 2016 #4
..."for the money purchasing SCOTUS judges" Kang Colby May 2016 #5
You do realize TeddyR May 2016 #6
A carefull re-reading of my post will show that I was referring to SCOTUS guillaumeb May 2016 #8
Apologies for misreading your post TeddyR May 2016 #9
Again, after accepting your kind apology, the SCOTUS is the final arbiter of law. guillaumeb May 2016 #11
Ok TeddyR May 2016 #13
what centuries of SCOTUS precedent? gejohnston May 2016 #7
First, prior to DC v Heller, the established and accepted view was that the Second guillaumeb May 2016 #10
There's lots of scholarly articles TeddyR May 2016 #12
Please read my reply #10. It says it better than I can. eom guillaumeb May 2016 #14
Ok TeddyR May 2016 #15
your source lied by omission, gejohnston May 2016 #16
While that view had some degree of legal standing... Lizzie Poppet May 2016 #17
To characterize a unanimous SCOTUS decision as guillaumeb May 2016 #18
Ah, so they never bothered to rule on it because, well "everybody knows" DonP May 2016 #19
Research SCOTUS decisions prior to Heller and your claim of guillaumeb May 2016 #20
Yeah, that's too bad, like it or not you're still stuck with Heller and McDonald as the law DonP May 2016 #25
You couldn't be more wrong about the linguistic analysis. Lizzie Poppet May 2016 #21
The clear language of the Second Amendment links a well regulated militia guillaumeb May 2016 #22
See above. Lizzie Poppet May 2016 #23
The NRA would be quite proud. guillaumeb May 2016 #24
Ah, resorting to insult? Bye, Felicia. Lizzie Poppet May 2016 #26
Bull. beevul May 2016 #29
Where does the Second Amendment TeddyR May 2016 #30
unanimous only because gejohnston May 2016 #28
Not familiar sarisataka May 2016 #27
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