General Discussion

If such laws exist they should be struck for sure

However a philosophical question (if you will)? Say two people get drunk together, consensually, both of whom are presumably aware that their inhibitions are likely to be lowered. Then they consensually have sex. Then one or both parties wakes up thinking to themselves "Damn, I'd NEVER have agreed to this person if I weren't drunk". I'd be VERY surprised if less than 50% of the population have experienced this, uh, phenomenon, so I'd guess many if not most of you know what I'm talking about.

Now the philosophical question I have about this is ... can this then rightly be called "rape"? Is "later regret" a sufficient basis for such a claim?